• andyburke
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      121 days ago

      I believe it because countries with more capitalist tendencies tend to have higher standards of living than other countries.

      • @Cowbee@lemmy.ml
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        321 days ago

        That’s an easy mistake to make. Judging countries by where they get their wealth, ie exploitation of the Global South, combined with judging by trajectory, will explain why this is a mistake.

        • andyburke
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          121 days ago

          Capitalism allowed the global north and “west” to outpace those other countries and exploit them in the first place. It wasn’t moral, but capitalism is what positioned them in the first place.

          • @Cowbee@lemmy.ml
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            421 days ago

            Yes, via violent domestic and hyper-violent international exploitation.

            Read the linked text.

            • andyburke
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              121 days ago

              Like I said, it wasn’t moral. It is still a result of capitalism. Think we’ve probably finished here because you’re not my teacher and you don’t assign me reading.

              • @Cowbee@lemmy.ml
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                321 days ago

                It was not, it was a result of industrialization, followed by Imperialism.

                Suit yourself though.

                • andyburke
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                  120 days ago

                  Colonial imperialism began with industrialization in your explanation? Capitalist countries were colonizing the world well before the industrial revolution.

                  • @Cowbee@lemmy.ml
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                    220 days ago

                    Colonialism is not the same as what I am referring to as Imperialism. I specifically mean the point at which Capitalism reaches outward and exports Capital to less developed countries to super-exploit for super-profits.