• underisk@lemmy.ml
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    ·
    9 months ago

    If a world war can only exist between nuclear powers then does the first one (and most of the second) not count?

    • Urist@lemmy.ml
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      9 months ago

      No, but a conflict pretty much has to include major powers to escalate to a world war and the major powers coincide with the nuclear powers either directly or peripherally. I get the sense that you are arguing in bad faith here.

      • underisk@lemmy.ml
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        9 months ago

        It can involve the nuclear powers without them being in direct, overt conflict with each other. I’m not arguing in bad faith; I genuinely believe that your definition of “World War” is remarkably narrow and I feel I’ve been pretty consistent about trying to lay out my reasoning for that.

        • Urist@lemmy.ml
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          3
          ·
          9 months ago

          Proxy wars historically have never constituted world wars by any account.

            • Urist@lemmy.ml
              link
              fedilink
              English
              arrow-up
              3
              ·
              9 months ago

              Yes, that is vacuously true. If it stops being so, recorded history will end.

              • underisk@lemmy.ml
                link
                fedilink
                arrow-up
                1
                ·
                9 months ago

                If all the nuclear powers aligned against all the non-nuclear states and waged a war of extermination against them, that would, by your terms, not qualify as a “World War”.