• CaptnNMorgan@reddthat.com
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        11 months ago

        That’s generally how it’s been done in America for hundreds of years. I think peasants in Europe did it like that even further back too. So how long until it can be considered “tradition”?

          • CaptnNMorgan@reddthat.com
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            1
            ·
            edit-2
            11 months ago

            Rich families married for power, peasants married for love. That’s pretty much how it’s always been. Lmao do you think people who worked on a lords farm was also worrying about who their daughter could marry to get a leg up? That’s ridiculous

            • andxz@lemmy.world
              link
              fedilink
              arrow-up
              2
              ·
              11 months ago

              From the University of Nottingham:

              People from land-owning families did not normally marry for love. Instead, most such marriages were arranged by their parents or guardians.

              Arranged marriages remain an important part of the culture of many societies in the world today, for the same implicit reasons that probably motivated medieval English people: for the creation of stable family units based on respect and duty, in which love can grow; and to protect and increase the family’s wealth and status by association with another family of equal or higher repute.

              Peasant women who did not own any land were not exempt from some kind of control over their marriage, as many manorial lords demanded payment of a sum of money called a ‘merchet’

              https://www.nottingham.ac.uk/manuscriptsandspecialcollections/learning/medievalwomen/theme5/marriagearrangements.aspx

              There are plenty of examples, both rich and poor, if you scroll down.