That’s just not true. In the US for example we know wealth was less concentrated in the late 1700’s, early 1800’s, and then again with the New Deal after the Great Depression. In fact the wealth gap in the US alone is higher now than it’s ever been, including during the Gilded Era.
The world was significantly poorer and wealth was much more concentrated before
That’s just not true. In the US for example we know wealth was less concentrated in the late 1700’s, early 1800’s, and then again with the New Deal after the Great Depression. In fact the wealth gap in the US alone is higher now than it’s ever been, including during the Gilded Era.
When was pre-capitalism to you?