• jeffw@lemmy.world
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    4 months ago

    But how does that average compare to industrialized nations? Both rapidly industrialized during the period you linked to while many other countries were still left behind. One big change would be the expansion of medical care

    • cenarius871@sh.itjust.worksOP
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      4 months ago

      Industrialization is a big part of marxist thought and many countries around the world still havent industrialized to this day. For example countries in africa and india etc. . So that industrialization even happened is a good thing.

      Edit: But to answer your question here are some industrialized countries added to the chart: https://ourworldindata.org/grapher/life-expectancy?time=1870..latest&country=OWID_WRL~CHN~RUS~USA~GBR

      Edit2: Income inequality was drastically reduced after the communist parties came to power: https://www.reddit.com/r/dataisbeautiful/comments/14o601y/oc_how_well_the_richest_top_1_have_been_doing_the/

        • cenarius871@sh.itjust.worksOP
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          4 months ago

          Industrialization does not magically happen. There need to be active policies done to make it happen like tariffs on manufactured goods or state ownership or subsidies for manufacturing etc. . Those policies have not been done enough in todays 3rd world countries and they were done in russia and china when they were backward and they went from backward countries to industrialized countries while having low wealth and income inequality.

          Edit: Yes it proves your point but also my point.

          • crawancon@lemm.ee
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            4 months ago

            no, the industrialization didn’t depend on the type of governing body; only resources, opportunities, and localized wealth.

            • cenarius871@sh.itjust.worksOP
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              4 months ago

              and russia and china didnt have this(only resources, opportunities, and localized wealth.) until the communist parties came to power?

              • crawancon@lemm.ee
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                4 months ago

                they had this before and during communist parties. They had all 3, but opportunity and resources are time variables which was more governed (pun intended) by the rapid spread of industrialism itself.

                • cenarius871@sh.itjust.worksOP
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                  4 months ago

                  why did it spread to south korea only in 1960? and not earlier? Why has it still not spread to africa and india today?

                  • crawancon@lemm.ee
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                    4 months ago

                    I think there is a lot more going on in those regions than I can account for their lack of industrialism. short answer is I don’t know.

                    longer response is the whole opportunities, resource triad thing can be broken by cultural and other barriers. let’s use Amish folks as that example.

                    the Koreas had a slightly isolationist time during the broader revolutions and since have different outside influences so they have different periods of growth.

          • archomrade [he/him]@midwest.social
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            4 months ago

            adding to this line of thought:

            this is why some marxists idealized revolutionary socialism being conducted in already industrialized countries, not necessarily the undeveloped ones it ended up taking root in.