• CommanderCloon@lemmy.ml
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    18
    ·
    edit-2
    1 year ago

    Everyone assumed they were heterosexual lovers, why should it be assumed that it was platonic after it’s discovered they were both male?

    It’s always the same pattern:

    • Assumption is made
    • New data makes the assumption queer
    • Initial assumption is questioned

    Yeah sure, maybe it was some girl and boy who didn’t even know each other, but I somehow doubt that a comment questioning a straight relationship would even have a single upvote

    • Steeve@lemmy.ca
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      17
      ·
      edit-2
      1 year ago

      Statistics? <10% of the population identifies as LGBTQ+ today, if your only evidence is two dudes hugging then not gay lovers is much more likely to be correct.

      • CommanderCloon@lemmy.ml
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        1 year ago

        You mean that after thousands of years of repression, with still today strong religious antagonism, and annihilation of culturally significant LGBTQ elements in colonized countries, the LGBTQ community is low? Yeah, no shit.

        None of those factors were present back when the Vesivius errupted in 79BC though, so our contemporary low % is perfectly irrelevant

        • Steeve@lemmy.ca
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          1
          ·
          1 year ago

          Yeah, there’s absolutely no reason to think that over 50% of the population was attracted to the same sex at any point in history, your comment is pure speculation based on hand wavy nonsense. The only data we can actually point to is current day statistics, which, even in demographics where LGBTQ is normalized, is way under 50%.

          Do you really think natural human attraction can be “annihilated” by religion and colonization? That’s ridiculous and frankly offensive to LGBTQ folks who were born that way.