• Viking_Hippie@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      That’s basically how it already is in the US.

      While poor people officially have the right to vote, deliberate voter suppression makes it difficult to impossible for tens of millions of them and easy for anyone living in a sparsely populated, rich, and overwhelmingly white area, even letting some of them vote in country clubs.

      Then even if they DO manage to vote, it’s largely symbolic since corruption in the form of several kinds of legal bribes is the norm rather than the exception, leading to policies favoring the rich to the point of almost disenfranchising all poor people and de facto disenfranchisement of everyone whose policy positions are to the left of “free market” myths.

      Tl;Dr: it’s a de facto oligarchic kakistocracy ruled by rich people through pet politicians who are themselves much richer on average than the general population.

    • Ignotum@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      Rich, male and own property* if i remember correctly

      And i don’t think the romans were the first nor the last to enforce those kinds of limits, rich men who owned property have been huge fans of that system throughout the ages

      • orrk@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        Actually, white and male wasn’t part of the requirements, In the roman system every family had a vote, along with every tribe (Rome saw them as family), now commonly the leader of the family was a man who served in the roman army, and most commonly white because of where the Romans were, but the southern Rome had a few black (what we would consider sub-Saharan Africans) and many Arab families (tribes), it was also not uncommon for the wife to become head of the family if the men were in the legion or dead