• koper@feddit.nl
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    2 months ago

    That analogy is faulty. It’s undisputed that Ukraine can use its own arms. The question is about whether they can use the other arms given to them by NATO countries for there purposes.

    • andrew_bidlaw@sh.itjust.works
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      2 months ago

      What analogy? I didn’t draw any direct comparison, I think. Was there one?

      Arms are given to Ukraine with every state dictating how they should not be used, with Ukraine being autonomous in their decision-making – as it sounds, they consult other countries, but decide things themselves. To my brief knowledge of past wars it was usually a ‘use how you want’ deal or a direct involvement and control from other party with boots on the ground, both don’t fit this exact situation. And it becomes even more unique since there are not one party, but a lot of them, all citing their own conditions on exact shipments, adding even more confusion to the situation.

      I want to highlight the fact it’s one of the first very public case of countries donating weapons with such policies limiting their usage against enemy troops.