• eestileib
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    3
    ·
    1 year ago

    England has explicitly had a non-autocratic king since 1215, the idea that the King of England “owned everything” is ahistorical.

    Do some research on the British East India Company before you’re so sure about how things worked in India. It was the first multinational, and it ran India as a profit center.

    One thing I find interesting about your comments is that you’re using a very Marxist framework to talk about pre-capitalist modes of organization (which is reductionist and partly why he is not taken seriously as a sociologist in most settings).